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"and reserved the funeral oration exclusively for the dead"

Isn't this statement tautological? Who but the dead would receive a funeral oration? — Preceding unsigned comment added by (talkcontribs) 12:49, 24 October 2011‎

I think it means "and reserved the funeral oration alone for the dead". But I agree, it's (at best) ambiguous as it stands. Perhaps it could be recast as "the panegyric was reserved for the living, while the dead would have only a funeral oration". Thoughts, anyone?
Alec 15:36, 26 December 2013 (UTC) — Preceding unsigned comment added by Alec.brady (talkcontribs)
That statement is taken directly from the 1911 Encyclopedia Britannica. What might help here is finding a second source which makes the distinction clearer to contemporary readers. It could also be that they were using "funeral" as an adjective as opposed to a noun, using the meaning "funereal", i.e., sad and serious. This would contrast with the panegyric which, per the Britannica, was meant to be rousing. But I agree, the difference is not at all clear as it is currently written. --GentlemanGhost (converse) 19:51, 15 September 2014 (UTC)
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