Talk:Darboux derivative

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I may be mistaken, but is this really due to Darboux? I know Cartan studies such things in his Groupes Finis... series. Of course, the standard of referencing was somewhat lower in those days. Can anyone track down the original paper? I tried some time ago, but the trail ended with Cartan. Silly rabbit 20:58, 1 June 2007 (UTC)

Definition of Maurer-Cartan Form

I'm certainly not an expert on this, but it seems like would be a map with the definitions given. Shouldn't there be an inverse in there somewhere? --Dan131m (talk) 02:28, 29 March 2013 (UTC)

I think it should be . That's a map , so that its inverse is a map as required. — Preceding unsigned comment added by (talk) 11:12, 7 January 2014 (UTC)

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